fallod

If you haven't already, you might enjoy reading "An Unquiet Mind" by Dr. Kay Redfield Jamison. She's a clinical psychologist who has a bipolar diagnosis.

Would you view a patient with a bipolar I/II diagnosis made retroactively after a unipolar depression diagnosis led to a manic/hypomanic episode after starting anti-depressant therapy (antidepressant induced mania) as any different than one fulfilling criteria for BPI/II prior to pharmacotherapy (with regards to treatment or pathophysiology)?