suppress spermatogenesis to levels that make men infertile (< 1 million/mL)
I'm assuming that number is some sort of a standard for infertility. I'm really not familiar with the field. Still, it seems like a high number (to a layman). is there some corresponding "risk of pregnancy" associated with that number or is it functionally zero?
Copidosoma80 karma
I'm assuming that number is some sort of a standard for infertility. I'm really not familiar with the field. Still, it seems like a high number (to a layman). is there some corresponding "risk of pregnancy" associated with that number or is it functionally zero?
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